OF CHARLES C. RYRIE's DECEPTIONS
Dr. Ryrie's revised edition of Dispensationalism, [copyright 1995,
pages 205 and 206 we find the following statements:
the above highlighted portion, it contains a quote from the book,
THEOLOGY, by Charles F. Baker [Grace Bible
2d ed. 1971; page 502]. Dr. Ryrie follows the quote with;
he insists that it [i.e. the preposition en] cannot be translated the
way in all instances, thus proving two baptisms."
Dr. Ryrie does not share is the full text and proof, a very good proof
Ryrie could not deal with, so Ryrie did not mention the powerful facts
his partial and misrepresentative "quote". Below is more of the
of the portion quoted, in most of its context, page 502 of Baker's
on a true Dispensationalism, [pages 503 and 504 follow]
that Baker indicates that "...if it can be proved". Ryrie cannot
and does not
preposition MUST be translated the same in such situations.
Baker, then on pages 503 and 504 of A DISPENSATIONAL THEOLOGY,
forth an essay by the then living Vernon Schutz.
is Schutz's reply to the
claims of Dr. Ryrie. As I understand it, Ryrie never did or could reply
Schutz's reply is short, so slowly read it all, and concentrate, it is
simplicity, very clear.
Dr. Ryrie concedes that en can
sometimes mean "with," "by," or "in,"
but he asks us to face the "possibility that in both instances
it does mean the same and refers to the same baptism." Since Dr.
Ryrie has coupled two ideas together let us examine them one at a time.
His plea to us rests partially on the basis that we translate en
"consistently" in both cases since "it
is used in exactly the same phrase with the Spirit."
But we do not always translate en
the same way simply because it is used in the same phrase with the same
noun. For instance, would you always translate the preposition en
when used with the noun heaven "IN
heaven?" Would you translate Matthew 5:34, "Swear not at all;
neither IN heaven," or "Swear not at all; neither BY heaven?"
Does Christ tell us not to swear IN heaven? How much sense does that
make? Obviously we must translate en
Now let's look at Matthew 5:45; 6:9 and 22:30. Would Dr. Ryrie suggest
that we should "consistently" translate en
"by" since it is used in exactly the same phrase with the
word "heaven?" How much sense does it make to translate en
"BY" in these passages? "Your Father which is BY heaven?"
"Our Father which art BY heaven?" "But are as the angels
BY heaven?" It is best to change the word BY in these passages
to IN. The point is, you must not always translate en
the same way in all cases even when used with the same noun. It is the
sense of the passage that determines whether
it should be IN heaven or BY heaven, and it is the sense of the passage
and context that determines whether it should be IN the Spirit or BY
It is important to see that we do not actually build our position on
the preposition itself, even though
at first glance it may seem as though we do. We depend more on the sense
of the passage than does Dr. Ryrie. Dr. Ryrie, however, keeps focusing
our attention on the translation of the preposition. He would like the
Greek en translated "IN"
the Spirit in both cases. As a result of this he carefully restricts
himself to using only Acts 1:5 with 1 Corinthians 12:13. The promise
Christ speaks of in Acts 1:5 is recorded in four other places. They
are Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:8; Luke 3:16; and John 1:33. Dr. Ryrie does
not mention or list these other passages. There is good reason for this.
It will be noted in the Greek texts that God does not find the Greek
preposition en so important, for,
although it appears before the words "water" and "Holy
Spirit" in John 1:33 and Matthew 3:11, in Luke's account it only
appears before the words "Holy Spirit" but it does not appear
before "water," and in Mark's account
the preposition does not appear at all. This shows that the
true sense of these passages is not really dependent on the preposition.
To demonstrate this more graphically, translate Matthew 3:11 as either
"with," or "by," or "in." Take your choice.
It is still evident who the baptizing agents are, even though one preposition
may serve better than another one.
"I (John) indeed baptize you with/by/in water.. .; but He (Christ)
shall baptize you with/by/in the Holy Spirit."
Changing the prepositions does not destroy the obvious sense of the
[i.e. of THIS] passage. The argument does not really rest on one little
preposition as Dr. Ryrie would have you believe. It is clear that John
is the baptizing agent. It is equally clear, because of the parallelism,
that Christ is the baptizing agent. Since it is not possible to make
the water the baptizer in this passage, neither is it possible to make
the Spirit the baptizer. Christ was the agent baptizing on the day of
from TRUTH magazine, 1969, Vol. XIX, No. 3, page 57. Titled: "An
Answer to an Analysis of Our Position". By the late pastor Vernon
A. Schutz. [profiled on this website on the PEOPLES/PLACES link].
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Vernon Schutz makes his case. A simple one, it is. He does not delve deeply
categories (such as instrument/agency, patient, sphere et al)
does he need to?
of "sense" implies common sense, as well as a mature
Corinthians 12:13, the SPIRIT is the baptizing agent, He - THE SPIRIT- puts
elected person INTO the body of Christ [with no water involved!].
1:5, we know that it
Christ Who put the Spirit in them - Acts 2:4
were filled - aorist passive), and John 1:33, Jesus baptizes
the Holy Spirit; Mark 1:8 and others! Usually kingdom signs accompanied
types of Acts/Pentecostal baptisms. There are numerous
baptisms in the Bible, contray to popular Baptist shillings.
copyright 2006, by Mr. Gary S. Dykes
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